Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Apprentice — Free Practice Questions
10 free sample questions from a bank of 117, with the correct answers and explanations. No signup required — start practising right now.
1What are two endpoint security implementation methods? (Choose two.)
Installing an anti-malware agent onto a user device
Deploying a firewall to prevent traffic from reaching an end user
Enforcing security policies on north-south traffic between users and the internet
Downloading software onto a laptop to prevent spyware
Answer: A, D
The short version
A and D — Endpoint tools run on the device itself. Both describe software installed directly on the user laptop to block malware and spyware.
Key concepts in this question
Endpoint security: protection that lives on the endpoint itself, such as an agent or installed anti-malware app.
Network security: controls in the path, such as firewalls filtering traffic before it reaches users.
North-south traffic: client-to-internet flows, which are a firewall use case rather than endpoint hardening.
Why A and D are correct
A describes installing an anti-malware agent onto a user device, which is the classic endpoint agent model. D describes downloading protective software onto a laptop to prevent spyware, which is the same on-device approach. Both place the control on the endpoint, where it can scan files, monitor behavior, and block execution even when the device is off the corporate network. That on-host placement is what makes them endpoint implementations.
Why the others are wrong
B. Deploying a firewall to keep traffic from reaching users is network security, not software running on the endpoint.
C. Enforcing policy on north-south user-to-internet traffic describes a network gateway or firewall function, not endpoint software.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
If the control is installed on the laptop or phone, think endpoint; if it sits in the traffic path, think network.
2Which tool resides on a host to identify malicious activity?
Instruction Detection System (IDS)
Unified threat detection device
Endpoint protection agent
Next-generation firewall appliance
Answer: C
The short version
C — The agent on the host sees malicious activity. An endpoint protection agent runs on the device to detect and block threats locally.
Key concepts in this question
Endpoint protection agent: host-resident software that monitors processes, files, and behavior for malware.
IDS: typically a network sensor that detects suspicious patterns, not a host agent.
Next-generation firewall: a network appliance that controls traffic between zones, not a host tool.
Why C is correct
The question asks which tool resides on a host to identify malicious activity. An endpoint protection agent is installed on laptops, servers, and mobile devices, where it inspects file execution, system calls, and behavior in real time. Because it lives on the host, it has visibility into encrypted processes, local exploits, and malware that network devices cannot see. That host residence plus detection role matches the stem directly.
Why the others are wrong
A. An Intrusion Detection System is usually network-based and monitors traffic, and the option wording is also a distractor term.
B. A unified threat detection device implies a network appliance, not software residing on the host itself.
D. A next-generation firewall appliance sits in the network path and filters traffic; it does not reside on the endpoint.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Resides on a host equals agent or host-based tool; sits in the network equals appliance, firewall, or IDS.
3What is the primary goal of the Weaponization and Delivery stage in the cyber attack lifecycle?
Developing and testing malware for bypassing defenses
Ensuring compliance with Security policies
Distributing compromised hardware to targets
Creating a malicious payload by using vulnerabilities
Answer: D
The short version
D — Weaponization builds the malicious payload. Attackers pair an exploit with malware so it can be delivered to the target.
Key concepts in this question
Cyber attack lifecycle: staged model from reconnaissance through delivery, exploitation, installation, command-and-control, and actions.
Weaponization: coupling a vulnerability or exploit with a deliverable payload such as a malicious document.
Delivery: transmitting that weaponized object to the victim by phishing, web, USB, or other vector.
Why D is correct
Weaponization and Delivery is the stage where the attacker turns research into an operational weapon. Creating a malicious payload using vulnerabilities captures that mechanism: select the exploit, attach the backdoor or malware, and package it for transmission. Testing and development support this goal, but the defining outcome is a deliverable payload ready to exploit the target when opened or accessed.
Why the others are wrong
A. Developing and testing malware to bypass defenses is part of preparation, but too narrow; the banked answer states the payload-creation outcome.
B. Ensuring compliance with security policies describes a defender activity, not an attacker weaponization goal.
C. Distributing compromised hardware describes a supply-chain tactic, not the general definition of weaponization and delivery.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Remember lifecycle order with R-W-D-E-I-C-A: Recon, Weaponize, Deliver, Exploit, Install, Command-and-control, Act.
4What is a cluster in relation to cloud-native security?
Portable and self-sufficient unit that packages an application with its dependencies
Set of system rules written in a particular programming language
Collection of nodes (bare-metal or virtualized machines) that will host application pods
Distributed collection of servers that hosts software and is accessible over the internet
Answer: C
The short version
C — A cluster is the group of machines that run pods. It pools bare-metal or virtual nodes to host containerized workloads.
Key concepts in this question
Cluster: collection of worker nodes managed together, typically by Kubernetes.
Pod: smallest deployable unit in Kubernetes, scheduled onto nodes inside a cluster.
Container: portable package with app plus dependencies, which runs inside pods, not the cluster itself.
Why C is correct
In cloud-native terminology, a cluster is the control-plane plus node pool that provides CPU, memory, and networking for pods. Whether nodes are bare-metal servers or virtual machines, the cluster abstracts them into shared capacity and schedules application pods across them. That matches the banked definition exactly and distinguishes the cluster layer from containers and pods running on top of it.
Why the others are wrong
A. A portable unit packaging an app with dependencies describes a container or image, not the cluster hosting it.
B. A set of system rules in a programming language describes policy-as-code or application code, not infrastructure.
D. A distributed collection of internet-accessible servers describes cloud in general, not the specific Kubernetes cluster construct.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Think nesting: container inside pod, pod inside node, nodes inside cluster; exam often swaps container and cluster.
5Which component is secured by the cloud provider in a shared responsibility model?
On-premises connectivity to hosts
Virtual machine (VM)
Website authentication
Host server
Answer: D
The short version
D — The provider secures the physical host. Customers secure data and apps above it under shared responsibility.
Key concepts in this question
Shared responsibility model: provider protects the cloud itself, customer protects what is put in the cloud.
Host server: physical hypervisor hardware and facilities owned by the provider.
Customer layer: virtual machines, identities, data, and app configuration managed by the tenant.
Why D is correct
Under shared responsibility, the cloud provider owns physical security, hypervisors, and host servers in its data centers. The customer remains responsible for guest operating systems, applications, access controls, and data classification. Host server therefore belongs on the provider side, while virtual machines, website authentication, and on-premises connectivity remain customer or joint responsibilities depending on service model.
Why the others are wrong
A. On-premises connectivity to hosts is built and secured by the customer network team, not the cloud provider.
B. Virtual machines are guest workloads configured and patched by the customer in IaaS, not provider-owned hosts.
C. Website authentication and identity policy are customer application controls, not physical infrastructure.
6Which type of network is associated with large geographic areas?
SAN
PAN
LAN
WAN
Answer: D
The short version
D — WAN spans large geographic areas. It links distant LANs across cities, countries, or continents.
Key concepts in this question
WAN: wide-area network covering broad geography using carrier, MPLS, VPN, or SD-WAN links.
LAN: local-area network confined to a building or campus with high speed and low latency.
PAN and SAN: personal-area and storage-area networks for very short or storage-specific scope.
Why D is correct
Network types are classified largely by geographic reach. A WAN interconnects dispersed sites over long distances, often over third-party transport, which matches large geographic areas in the stem. LANs serve a single location, PANs serve devices around a person, and SANs serve block storage connectivity. Only WAN fits the wide-area description.
Why the others are wrong
A. SAN is a storage-area network for disk arrays and servers, not a geographic wide-area design.
B. PAN is a personal-area network such as Bluetooth around one user, the opposite of large geography.
C. LAN is a local-area network limited to a site or campus, smaller in scope than a WAN.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Order by size: PAN is room-scale, LAN is building-scale, WAN is world-scale; SAN is storage, not size.
7What occurs in the reconnaissance stage of the cyber attack lifecycle?
File exfiltration
SQL injection
Host sweep
Phishing campaign
Answer: C
The short version
C — Reconnaissance discovers targets before attack. Host sweeps and scans map live systems for later exploitation.
Key concepts in this question
Reconnaissance: first lifecycle stage focused on research, scanning, and enumeration of targets.
Host sweep: probing a range to find active hosts, a classic reconnaissance technique.
Later stages: delivery, exploitation, installation, and actions on objective occur after recon.
Why C is correct
Reconnaissance is about learning without yet compromising: whois lookups, phishing-list building, port scans, and host sweeps to find reachable systems. A host sweep fits squarely there because it identifies live targets for follow-on weaponization and delivery. File exfiltration, SQL injection, and phishing campaigns belong to later phases where the attacker already acts against a chosen victim.
Why the others are wrong
A. File exfiltration is an Actions on the Objective outcome after access is established, not initial recon.
B. SQL injection is an exploitation technique against a vulnerable app, occurring well after reconnaissance.
D. A phishing campaign is typically a delivery mechanism, sending the weaponized lure after recon has selected targets.
8Which segmentation method will limit the number of devices that can be granted a private IP address in a network?
NAT
Static routing
IP subnetting
VLAN
Answer: C
IP subnetting divides a larger IP network into smaller logical networks by changing the subnet mask or prefix length. Because each subnet has a defined address range, subnetting directly limits how many usable host addresses are available inside that segment. For example, a smaller subnet provides fewer assignable private IP addresses, which restricts the number of devices that can be placed in that network. NAT translates addresses between networks, but it does not itself define the size of the internal address pool. Static routing controls forwarding paths and does not limit how many devices can receive private IP addresses. VLANs segment Layer 2 broadcast domains, but the host count is ultimately determined by the IP subnet assigned to that VLAN. In secure network design, subnetting is often paired with VLANs and zones so that addressing, routing, and policy enforcement align cleanly. Reference/topics: Network Security 3.1, network segmentation methods; Network Fundamentals 2.4, NAT; Network Fundamentals 2.5, routing.
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Vendor: Paloalto Networks
Product: Apprentice
Update on: Sep 3, 2026
Questions: 115
Price: $52.5 $149.99
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9Which statement describes network as a service (NaaS)?
Cloud-delivered infrastructure service providing network resources on demand
Software application that monitors network performance and security
Traditional model in which enterprises own and manage their physical network infrastructure
Set of protocols used to standardize communication within a LAN
Answer: A
The short version
A — NaaS delivers networking on demand from the cloud. Customers consume connectivity without owning the hardware.
Key concepts in this question
Network as a service: cloud-delivered routing, VPN, firewall, and bandwidth consumed by subscription.
Traditional networking: enterprise-owned boxes and circuits requiring capital purchase and manual upkeep.
Monitoring tools: software that observes networks but does not itself deliver network resources.
Why A is correct
NaaS follows the as-a-service pattern: the provider hosts the infrastructure and the customer rents virtual networks, edge connectivity, and security policy on demand. That matches cloud-delivered infrastructure providing network resources on demand. It replaces owning routers and appliances with flexible, scalable consumption, often paired with SD-WAN and cloud firewalls.
Why the others are wrong
B. An application that monitors performance describes NPM or NDR tooling, not a service delivering the network itself.
C. Owning and managing physical infrastructure is the legacy model that NaaS is designed to replace.
D. A set of LAN protocols describes standards such as Ethernet or IP, not a cloud consumption model.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Anything as-a-service means rented from cloud: NaaS equals rented network, not owned boxes.
10Which device reads conformation from packets at the application layer of the OSI model to determine if traffic should be forwarded?
WAN accelerator
Router
Switch
Next-generation firewall
Answer: D
The short version
D — Only a next-generation firewall inspects Layer 7 content. It reads application data to allow or deny forwarding.
Key concepts in this question
Application layer: Layer 7 of OSI where HTTP, DNS, and app payloads are understood.
Next-generation firewall: policy engine with App-ID and content inspection at Layer 7.
Router and switch: forward mainly on Layer 3 and Layer 2 headers without deep app awareness.
Why D is correct
The stem asks which device reads information at the application layer to decide forwarding. A next-generation firewall reassembles sessions and identifies applications, users, and threats in the payload before permitting traffic. Routers pick paths by IP, switches forward by MAC, and WAN accelerators optimize performance. None performs Layer 7 policy inspection as its core forwarding decision.
Why the others are wrong
A. A WAN accelerator optimizes and deduplicates traffic; it does not enforce application-layer forwarding policy.
B. A router forwards by destination IP and routing table, operating primarily at Layer 3.
C. A switch forwards by MAC address within a LAN, operating primarily at Layer 2.
Cybersecurity Apprentice exam tip
Application-layer decision equals NGFW; IP decision equals router; MAC decision equals switch.